Page 85 - 6099
P. 85

Therefore, the solution of the eigenvalue problem (8.25)-(8.26) is an infinite sequence
                   of nonnegative simple eigenvalues and their associated eigenfunctions. We use the con-
                   venient notation:
                                                    πnx          πn
                                                                     2
                                       X n (x) = cos    , λ n = (   ) , n = 0, 1, 2, . . .
                                                     L            L
                   Consider now the ODE (8.24) for λ = λ n . The solutions are

                                                      T 0 (t) = γ 0 + δ 0 t,                       (8.28)
                                                p                 p
                                                                        2
                                                      2
                                 T n (t) = γ n cos( λ n c t) + δ n sin( λ n c t), n = 1, 2, 3, . . .  (8.29)
                   Thus, the product solutions of the initial boundary value problem are given by
                                                                      A 0 + B 0 t
                                             u 0 (x, t) = X 0 (x)T 0 (t) =     ,
                                                                          2

                                                   πnx           cπnt          cπnt
                      u n (x, t) = X n (x)T n (t) = cos   A n cos     + B n sin       , n = 1, 2, 3, . . .
                                                    L             L              L

                   Applying the (generalized) superposition principle, the expression
                                                  ∞
                                     A 0 + B 0 t  X           cπnt          cπnt       πnx
                           u(x, t) =           +       A n cos     + B n sin       cos             (8.30)
                                         2                     L              L         L
                                                 n=1
                   is a (generalized, or at least formal) solution of the problem (8.16)-(8.19). It can be
                   proved that the solution (8.30) can be represented as a superposition of forward and
                   backward waves. In other words, solution (8.30) is also a generalized solution of the wave
                   equation.
                       It remains to find the coefficients A n , B n in solution (8.30). Here we use the initial
                   conditions. Assume that the initial data f, g can be expanded into generalized Fourier
                   series with respect to the sequence of the eigenfunctions of the problem, and that these
                   series are uniformly converging. That is,
                                                              ∞
                                                             X         πnx
                                                        a 0
                                                f(x) =     +     a n cos    ,                      (8.31)
                                                        2                L
                                                             n=1
                                                              ∞
                                                             X         πnx
                                                        ea 0
                                                g(x) =     +     ea n cos   .                      (8.32)
                                                        2                L
                                                             n=1
                   Again, the (generalized) Fourier coefficients of f and g can easily be determined; for
                   m ≥ 0, we multiply (8.31) by the eigenfunction cos(πmx/L), and then we integrate over
                   [0, L]. We obtain
                                                                   ∞
                      Z  L   πmx                Z  L    πmx       X      Z  L   πmx       πnx
                          cos     f(x)dx =   a 0    cos      dx +     a n    cos      cos     dx. (8.33)
                       0       L             2   0       L        n=1     0       L        L
                   It is easily checked that
                                                                  
                                                                  0,      m 6= n,
                                      Z  L    πmx      πnx        
                                          cos       cos     dx =    L/2, m = n 6= 0,               (8.34)
                                        0       L        L        
                                                                  
                                                                    L,     m = n = 0.


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